1)How has battered-woman syndrome been used in criminal court cases in recent years?
2)Compare the Lavallee and Malott cases. How are they similar and how are they different?
3)Why do you think many abused woman drop the charges against their abusive partners?
4)Men are also abused by their spouses. Do you think the courts would accept a battered-man syndrome defence if a man
killed his spouse? Why or why not?
1) I have no idea about this one...
2) Lavell's husband didn't have a gf for Lavalle to kill while Malott did?am I right I don't think so..:(
3)They care for them, most women are worried about their children, also because in many cultures, if one woman gets a divorce it is said that they cannot marry again and would have to be single for the rest of thier lives also because they will get a bad credit in the world and obviously never get married again.
4)No because they don't have much responsibilities as woman do also becaus they are more valued in society then woman are as many people view..
So basically thts what I think am i right...can u help me...
I will greatly appreciate your help..Thankyou:D